Question: When did coffee begin to be adopted as a bourgeois institution in Europe?

Explanation: The lectures describe the 17th century as the period when European coffeehouses spread and became institutionalized as key bourgeois spaces of sociability, discussion, and commerce (especially in major cities). (Lecture/Reading: Breen, The Age of Intoxication; also consistent with coffeehouse sociability framing in Grehan.)~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ ~~~~~ It “starts” in the seventeenth century mainly because coffee became available in Europe through expanding Ottoman–European trade and travel, and then the coffeehouse emerged as a new kind of urban public venue where people could gather, communicate, and talk politics—enough that authorities tried to monitor and regulate them (e.g., licensing and suppression). Ram_Middle East Drug Cultures i… Ram_Middle East Drug Cultures i… Ram_Middle East Drug Cultures i…